11.1167, Qs: Neutralisation, Origin of Language

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LINGUIST List:  Vol-11-1167. Mon May 22 2000. ISSN: 1068-4875.

Subject: 11.1167, Qs: Neutralisation, Origin of Language

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1)
Date:  Fri, 19 May 2000 15:09:45 +0100
From:  ruthanna <me at ruthanna.idps.co.uk>
Subject:  Neutralisation

2)
Date:  Sun, 21 May 2000 18:36:50 GMT
From:  "Daniel Rafferty" <danielrafferty at hotmail.com>
Subject:  Origin of Language

-------------------------------- Message 1 -------------------------------

Date:  Fri, 19 May 2000 15:09:45 +0100
From:  ruthanna <me at ruthanna.idps.co.uk>
Subject:  Neutralisation

I recently read something about 'neutralisation', I believe within the
area of grammaticalization.  I can no longer remember where it was, or
even what exactly it
said.
I would welcome any information on the process of 'neutralisation' -
what it refers to (in grammaticalization - not phonology) -- and
especially if this term has ever been used in order to describe the
phenomenon of the overuse of masculine (singular) in gender classifed
languages.
If there is interest, I will of course post a summary.
Thanks,
Ruthanna Barnett
Lancaster University
UK


-------------------------------- Message 2 -------------------------------

Date:  Sun, 21 May 2000 18:36:50 GMT
From:  "Daniel Rafferty" <danielrafferty at hotmail.com>
Subject:  Origin of Language


We still don't know if speech evolved onomatopoeically or not, but are there
any reliable estimates of when we commenced speaking, i.e. using vocal
utterances to convey progressively more nuanced meaning?  I've read anywhere
from 100,000 BCE to 15,000 BCE.  Any web references on the evolution of
language, that treat the matter as impartially as possible would be welcome.

Dan Rafferty

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