13.1863, Qs: Voice/Music/Meaning, Morphology
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Sun Jul 7 13:03:38 UTC 2002
LINGUIST List: Vol-13-1863. Sun Jul 7 2002. ISSN: 1068-4875.
Subject: 13.1863, Qs: Voice/Music/Meaning, Morphology
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1)
Date: Wed, 3 Jul 2002 19:20:36 +0200
From: Nicholas Bacuez <vyvyan at mac.com>
Subject: sound and meaning through music
2)
Date: Wed, 03 Jul 2002 17:59:23 +0000
From: Les Zsoldos <lgz at sfu.ca>
Subject: morphology
-------------------------------- Message 1 -------------------------------
Date: Wed, 3 Jul 2002 19:20:36 +0200
From: Nicholas Bacuez <vyvyan at mac.com>
Subject: sound and meaning through music
I am presently working on the voice at the opera and the cultural place
of the sung voice in western society: considering the voice at the opera
as a social fact, I'm working on the link between the "sound" and the
"meaning" through music.
Does anyone have some reference(s) or material(s) on the subject of the
cultural approach to the voice.
I thank you for your kind attention.
Nicholas Bacuez
vyvyan at mac.com
-------------------------------- Message 2 -------------------------------
Date: Wed, 03 Jul 2002 17:59:23 +0000
From: Les Zsoldos <lgz at sfu.ca>
Subject: morphology
Hi!
In the textbook 'Contemporary Linguistic Analysis' (Archibald and
O'Grady), the word 'expensive' is analyzed as expense + ive and
expense is categorized as a verb. This follows the phrase structure
rule V + ive = A. I realize we have creative, active, impressive,
restrictive, etc. but in expensive, shouldn't expense be a noun? Is
'expend' a verb in Old English, or is this just a mistake in the
answer key? Can't -ive attach to nouns? Is productive not such an
example, or is productive really produce + t + ive, where t is a part
of the stem? Is responsive respond + ive where d becomes s as a
result of spirantization which is of course weakening/lenition? Any
answers will be greatly appreciated. My main question concerns the
analysis of 'expensive'.
Thank you.
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