14.2885, Qs: Reflexive/Nonreflexive Usage; Vowel Lengthening

[LINGUIST List]

LINGUIST List:  Vol-14-2885. Wed Oct 22 2003. ISSN: 1068-4875.

Subject: 14.2885, Qs: Reflexive/Nonreflexive Usage; Vowel Lengthening

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1)
Date:  Tue, 21 Oct 2003 10:12:34 +0000
From:  Andres Enrique-Arias <andres.enrique at uib.es>
Subject:  loss of reflexive / non-reflexive distinction

2)
Date:  Tue, 21 Oct 2003 12:03:30 +0000
From:  "Hugues Steve N. Koumba-Binza" <hugues_steve at yahoo.fr>
Subject:  Universal vowel-lengthening rule

-------------------------------- Message 1 -------------------------------

Date:  Tue, 21 Oct 2003 10:12:34 +0000
From:  Andres Enrique-Arias <andres.enrique at uib.es>
Subject:  loss of reflexive / non-reflexive distinction

Dear Linguists,

I would like to ask whether in situations where there is a loss of
distinction in pronouns or grammatical elements that mark reflexive
and non-reflexive expression there is a common path of change. In
principle, because reflexive expression is semantically more
restricted than non-reflexive, if there were a merge of functions one
would expect non-reflexive expression to take over reflexive and not
the other way. For instance in Spanish non-reflexive pronouns can be
used for reflexive reference but not the other way. Juan lo quiere
todo para él literally Juan wants everything for him, is interpreted
as meaning for himself, but the opposite, that is, non-reflexive
interpretation with a reflexive pronoun is not possible. However, I
have seen two historical processes where reflexive expression has
taken over non-reflexive meanings. For instance in Old Spanish the
change from dative pronoun ge > se (homonymous with reflexive se) has
resulted in the present ambiguity as to reflexivity / non-reflexivity
of the Spanish pronoun se when immediately followed by a third person
direct object pronoun. And in European Portuguese we have estou a
falar consigo I´m talking with you where consigo is originally a third
pers. reflexive pronoun meaning with himself.

Is it then the merge of reflexive and non-reflexive something common
crosslinguistically and if thats the case, can it happen in either
direction? Ill be glad to post a summary of responses if there is
enough interest. Thanks,

Andrés Enrique-Arias


-------------------------------- Message 2 -------------------------------

Date:  Tue, 21 Oct 2003 12:03:30 +0000
From:  "Hugues Steve N. Koumba-Binza" <hugues_steve at yahoo.fr>
Subject:  Universal vowel-lengthening rule

Dear linguists,

Is it truly an universal rule that vowels are usually lengthened
before the consonants /l/ and /r/? Please, provide me with some
references on this question.

Thank you

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