LL-L: "Grammar" LOWLANDS-L, 22.FEB.2000 (02) [E]
Lowlands-L Administrator
sassisch at yahoo.com
Tue Feb 22 20:53:04 UTC 2000
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L O W L A N D S - L * 22.FEB.2000 (02) * ISSN 189-5582 * LCSN 96-4226
Posting Address: <lowlands-l at listserv.linguistlist.org>
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A=Afrikaans, Ap=Appalachean, D=Dutch, E=English, F=Frisian, L=Limburgish
LS=Low Saxon (Low German), S=Scots, Sh=Shetlandic
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From: Peter Stornebrink [frlboppe at direct.ca]
Subject: LL-L: "Grammar" LOWLANDS-L, 22.FEB.2000 (01) [E]
Hi Ron,
I am familiar with the use of "to get to", in the examples you have
mentioned, here in Canada as well.
Peter Stornebrink, Victoria B.C., Canada
>From: R. F. Hahn [sassisch at yahoo.com]
>Subject: Grammar
>
>Dear Lowlanders,
>
>This posting pertains to English.
>
>This weekend I suddenly became aware of my own use of the phrase "to get to
>{verb}" because in a certain context I felt I needed to use it several times
>in a row. I immediatly chalked it down to another step "down" the road to
>Americanization. ;) Is it strictly American (and Canadian)? Or is it more
>general or is beginning to take roots in other English dialects? If not, do
>speakers of other dialects understand it? Does anyone have any idea about its
>origin? I certainly never used it before living in the United States, and I
>seem to be using it and various other expression now that I'm beginning to
>"slip" (i.e., my resistance is weakened).
>
>I am also wondering about the semantic aspect of "to get to {verb}." I am
>inclined to just translate it as "may" or "to be allowed/permitted to," but I
>am not too sure if that really captures it in all cases. Might it be more
>accurate to translate it as "to have the privilege of ...ing" or in some
>instances "to have the prerogative of ...ing," or something like that?
>Examples:
>
>(1) "You'll get to blow out the candles on your birthday cake after we've sung
>'Happy birthday'."
>
>(2) "Jackie gets to sit next to Granpa."
>
>(3) "Remember that it's you who gets to make the decisions from now on."
>
>Perhaps some of you can come up with other examples.
>
>It seems to me that "to get to" is not always freely interchangeable with
>"may" and "to be allowed to", though it may be in examples (1) and (2) above.
>I'm not so sure about example (3). Certainly, "may" and "to get to" seem to
>connote different shades in examples like these:
>
>(4a) May I help you with your bags? (= "Am I permitted to ...")
>(4b) Do I get to help you with your bags? (= "Am I granted the privilege of
>...ing")
>
>Anyway, I'd welcome your input.
>
>Best regards,
>
>Reinhard/Ron
----------
From: "Ian James Parsley" <parsley at highbury.fsnet.co.uk>
Subject: LL-L: "Grammar" LOWLANDS-L, 22.FEB.2000 (01) [E]
Ron,
Well, I would happily use any of your first three examples (whether I was in
England or NI), but not the fourth. Maybe that gives you some hints on
usage?
-------------------------------
Ian James Parsley
http://www.gcty.com/parsleyij
"JOY - Jesus, Others, You"
----------
From: sisrael+ at pitt.edu
Subject: LL-L: "Grammar" LOWLANDS-L, 22.FEB.2000 (01) [E]
<sassisch at yahoo.com> wrote:
> From: R. F. Hahn [sassisch at yahoo.com]
> Subject: Grammar
> This weekend I suddenly became aware of my own use of the phrase "to get
> to {verb}"
> I am also wondering about the semantic aspect of "to get to {verb}." I am
> inclined to just translate it as "may" or "to be allowed/permitted to,"
> but I am not too sure if that really captures it in all cases. Might it
> be more accurate to translate it as "to have the privilege of ...ing" or
> in some instances "to have the prerogative of ...ing," or something like
> that?
It also can mean "to have the opportunity to", e.g.
"I'll get to sneak away without anyone knowing"
There is no question of permission: it is one of opportunity. I'd suggest
that the main meaning is opportunity, but that it often overlaps with
permission as well (just as "may" overlaps permission with possibility).
There's another usage, of course, "to attend to":
e.g. A: "Did you take out the garbage yet?"
B: "No, I'll get to it later."
I have little doubt that it's a chance resemblance, but I believe Icelandic
uses "geta" to mean 'can, is able to':
Eg get thadh sagt "I can say that."
Stefan Israel
sisrael at imap.pitt.edu
Ron's examples
> (1) "You'll get to blow out the candles on your birthday cake after we've
> sung 'Happy birthday'."
>
> (2) "Jackie gets to sit next to Granpa."
>
> (3) "Remember that it's you who gets to make the decisions from now on."
> (4a) May I help you with your bags? (= "Am I permitted to ...")
> (4b) Do I get to help you with your bags? (= "Am I granted the privilege
> of ...ing")
----------
From: Candon Clannach [lethglas at pacbell.net]
Subject: LL-L: "Grammar" LOWLANDS-L, 22.FEB.2000 (01) [E]
Ron wrote:
All these to me have the same semantic quality, i.e. someone else has
given permission to do something as opposed to self volition.
> (1) "You'll get to blow out the candles on your birthday cake after we've sung
> 'Happy birthday'."
Someone will give you permission to blow out the candles.
> (2) "Jackie gets to sit next to Granpa."
Someone has allowed Jackie to sit next to Grampa.
> (3) "Remember that it's you who gets to make the decisions from now on."
Someone is allowing you to make the decisions from now on.
There is difference in the next two examples.
As I see it:
> (4a) May I help you with your bags? (= "Am I permitted to ...")
I am offering my help of my own volition to you now.
> (4b) Do I get to help you with your bags? (= "Am I granted the privilege of
> ...ing")
I am asking for you (or some other authority) to give me permission to
help with your bags at some unspecified time in the future.
Candon
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