LL-L "Language policies" 2003.01.22 (09) [E]

[Lowlands-L]

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From: Ian James Parsley <parsleyij at yahoo.com>
Subject: Language vs. Dialect

Guid Fowk,

It is noticeable the old arguiment of
'language/dialect' has reared its ugly head again
during the submissions to the Council of Europe's
'Committee of Experts' re. the European Charter.

It is interesting that those who choose to make the
case for 'Ulster Scots' being a separate language from
'Scots' choose to do so behind people's backs at
closed meetings, rather than in public. This is
because in public the position is indefensible.

It is clear of course that Northern Ireland (and
indeed the Republic of Ireland) is a different
jurisdiction from Scotland, and that there are certain
differences (socially as much as linguistically) in
how the Scots language has developed on 'our side o
the Sheuch' - caused by a slightly different literary
tradition since about 1830 and different methods of
governance.

However, there are certain questions that have to be
answered about the contention that 'Ulster Scots' is a
language in its own right. What research illustrates
that there are certain linguistic markers used
consistently in all Scots dialects in Ulster but not
in Scotland? How does one define 'Ulster Scots', if it
is not part of 'Scots'? What purpose does
distinguishing 'Ulster Scots' from 'Scots' actually
have?

Or is this all just a power game? I daresay that if it
helps distinguish 'Ulster Scots' from 'English', the
proponents of the 'Ulster Scots is separate' line will
be the first to steal an archaic word from NE
Scotland!

I daresay also that this is a familiar experience
elsewhere in the 'Lowlands'?

Guidwill tae aa,
Ian.
------------------
Ian James Parsley
Co Down, Northern Ireland

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From: R. F. Hahn <sassisch at yahoo.com>
Subject: Language policies

Ian (above):

> I daresay also that this is a familiar experience
> elsewhere in the 'Lowlands'?

Possibly the case of "Low Saxon" in the Netherlands vs. "Low German" in
Germany.  Most of the establishment of the latter keeps pretending that the
former is not a part of the latter, pretending to be dealing with two
separate languages that just happen to be divided at the German-Dutch
border.  My hunch is that it is mostly their way of keeping things
"manageable," i.e., in the country, so hairy problems can be avoided (such
as orthographic reform on an *international* basis rather than on the
current German basis), and you can continue treating the language as an
appendage of German as was done before official recognition, aside from the
understandable reluctance to give up one's more convenient position of being
a bigger fish in a smaller pond.

Regards,
Reinhard/Ron

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