LL-L "Phonology" 2004.06.09 (02) [E]

[Lowlands-L]

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L O W L A N D S - L * 09.JUN.2004 (02) * ISSN 189-5582 * LCSN 96-4226
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A=Afrikaans Ap=Appalachian B=Brabantish D=Dutch E=English F=Frisian
L=Limburgish LS=Lowlands Saxon (Low German) N=Northumbrian
S=Scots Sh=Shetlandic V=(West)Flemish Z=Zeelandic (Zeêuws)
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From: Gary Taylor <gary_taylor_98 at yahoo.com>
Subject: Phonology

Hi All

John, you wrote:

"As an Englishman I would regard this intrusive final -r as an affectation,
and it probably did originate as a hypercorrection, though I have generally
heard it from well-educated individuals who should have known better."

As I said in my previous mail - in England it's definitely not a form of
hypercorrection. I'm fairly
well educated (now studying for my doctorate) and I would use it after the
vowels of 'spa', 'law' and 'idea' when they occur before a following vowel.
These 'r's have been commonly - and I think rather unfairly - called
intrusive 'r's as if they shouldn't be there; but this smacks of
prescriptive grammar, which as we all know is the ultimate evil.

There's a universal tendency in languages towards a syllabic structure of
C(+)V(C+) (i.e. syllables starting with consonants). This is always the case
in German for example, where words beginning orthographically with a vowel
actually start with a glottal stop - which is a consonant. This is also the
case in many varieties of English. This glottal stop before a vowel only
occurs in my English when the vowel-initial syllable in question is at the
start of a phrase, as in 'It's raining'. Elsewhere I always have some form
of glide between vowels to preserve the CV structure, so 'me' on its own is
[mi:] and 'you' is [ju:], but I have 'me[j]and you' and 'you[w]and me'.
In the same way 'battle' is [bæto] but 'Battle of...' is [bæt at l@v...], and
thus also law is [lO:] but I have 'law[r]is'. I wouldn't say that it is
intrusive, I would regard it more as a phonemically determined linking-r.

Ok, historically there was no 'r' in this position, but historically there
was no 't' pronounced in
'often', but the pronunciation with 't' is increasingly becoming the
standard pronunciation, with
'offen' becoming increasingly dated - or at least to my youngish English
ears.

"As an Englishman I would regard this intrusive final -r as an affectation"

It's definitely NOT an affectation - an affectation is when an Englishman
pronounces 'witch' and 'which' differently. This difference died out during
the last century in all parts of England (with the possible exception of
Northumberland), however lives on in Scotland, Ireland, Canada and America.

Who am I meant to be copying when I use this 'intrusive' r? It's not
something that I started to
add later on in life because I thought it sounded nice. I didn't even know I
added an 'r' in this
position until it was pointed out to me, in much the same way as I would
have always denied vocalising my 'l's before I started studying linguistics
and heard recordings of my own speech.

"though I have generally heard it from well-educated individuals who should
have known better."

As said, I'm fairly well educated, and I do know better :)

Gary

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