LL-L "Grammar" 2005.08.10 (10) [E]

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From: "heather rendall" <HeatherRendall at compuserve.com>
Subject: LL-L "Grammar" 2005.08.08 (03) [E]

Message text written by INTERNET:lowlands-l at LOWLANDS-L.NET
>A similar development happened in the pronace
languages with the construction "amare-habeo".<

This is a really nice analogy because the same 'auxiliary' also ended up
being used as the one to form the 'perfect tense' as a separate/d
auxiliary

Which seems to indicate that languages make use of a single auxiliary in
different ways:   in French /Vulgar Latin the amare habeo >>> infinitive
with an agglutinated 'auxiliary'    aimerai but the perfect tense used it
as a separate sound  j'ai aimé   and the Past Historic agglutinatively
????? 'j'aimai  il aima.

Remembering that regular verbs are the newer construction in Germanic,
that they too used a verb agglutinatively but for the simple past not the
future is intriguing. That the use of the same 'auxiliary' as a separate 
verb
remains only in German dialect but as a main tense form in English is
doubly intriguing.

Do other languages with a PIE ancestory do this?
Have they done it when creolisation takes place i.e. when they have
encountered another language area?

Vulgar Latin also used 'debeo' to create new tense forms. Did this develop
into accepted tense forms in other Romace languages?  ( Sorry Romance
languages - wrong forum!!  ;-)    )

Are there other verbs used as auxiliaries in any other germanic or PIE
descended but in contact with Germanic langauges?  What about The
scandanavian languages?

Heather

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