LL-L 'Celtic connections' 2006.09.26 (02) [E]

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L O W L A N D S - L * 26 September 2006 * Volume 02
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From: Heather Rendall [HeatherRendall at compuserve.com]
Subject: LL-L 'Phonology' 2006.09.25 (03) [E]

Message text written by INTERNET:lowlands-l at LOWLANDS-L.NET
>claiming that Pictish was British<

Isn't there evidence that the Picts were matrilinear? And that this sets
them apart ( very much so) from the patrilinear Celts?

And isn't there some hint that underlying boths Goidels & Brythons in Wales
is a substrate of matrilinear traditions ............... i.e. where the
youngest daughter always stayed to look after the parents and thus
inherited the property. And sons moved away from the family farm either set
up in farms of their own by parents or by marrying into the female line
that was to inherit the house & land

And that this has echoes in our fairy stories where young lad goes off to
seek his fortune and ends up winning the hand of the princess and half the
kingdom.

Just a thought

Heather

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From: Paul Finlow-Bates [wolf_thunder51 at yahoo.co.uk]
Subject: LL-L 'Phonology' 2006.09.25 (03) [E]

    From: 'Isaac M. Davis' [isaacmacdonalddavis at gmail.com]
    Subject: LL-L 'Phonology' 2006.09.18 (01) [E]

    But don't be too quick to identify the Picts as Brythons. There is
    still a great big question mark over Pictish. It's actually a pet peeve of mine,
    as I was explaining to my Irish teacher a couple of weeks ago, when people
    present the question of who the Picts were as being even remotely settled. It's
    not. Not by a longshot.

    Beannachtaí geala,

    Íosac Mac Dáibhidh/Isaac M. Davis

    And from: R. F. Hahn [sassisch at yahoo.com]
    Subject: Phonology

    Isaac,

    OK, OK! So I'll be good and refrain from claiming that Pictish was British ...
    for the time being at least.

    Slán agus sonas ort!

    Reinhard/Ron

I'm rather relieved to learn that the "Pictish question" remains open.  On
another site I was firmly assured that "most scholars these days accept that
Pictish is Brythonic" when I raised a possible non-Indo European status!
 
Paul Finlow-Bates

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From: 'Scat' [Scat at cfl.rr.com]
Subject: LL-L 'Phonology' 2006.09.25 (03) [E]

"Welsch/Welsh/Wallace/Wealas" all meant "foreigner" in reference to any
non-Germanic
speakers in contact with Germanic speakers. Even the French are said to
have
referred to the inhabitants of Alsace-Lorraine as such even while claiming
them as
an integral part of France. And William Wallace's ancestors were from
Strathclyde
--a Brythonic area.
Scott Catledge

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