Query

Richley Crapo RCRAPO at HASS.USU.EDU
Fri Aug 27 21:20:39 UTC 2004


Answers to any of these questions would be greatly appreciated:

1. What might be the equivalent a la Karttunen of a word written around AD 1600 as quitztotica where the first t *might* be an extranious mark or accent over the preceding i, but could also really be a t.

2. could Mex. a:xcan iuhquin be used to mean something like "which is the same as [what we call] Mexico today"?

and
 
3. When was "Mexico" (or at least the abbreviation, Mex.) first used to designate either the Valley of Mexico and--perhaps later--for New Spain as a whole (or at least territory beyond the Valley of Mexico) by folks who lived there? 



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