expressives

[Dick Watson]

   Stephen, et al,

   From my experience, 'expressives' comes from the French 'impressifs'
   widely used in Southeast Asia.  Cf. Maurice Durand 1961, for example.
   'Ideophone' is an English language coinage developed in Africa by
   Clement Doke (1941). Phonosemantic is a much broader term, referring to
   all kinds of sound-meaning correlations.  Householder used the term
   phonestheme for such minimal units in English in 1946, Markel and Hamp
   used 'psycho-morph' in 1960, and Wells and Keyser offered a choice of
   'semantic morphemes', 'half morphemes', 'sub-morphemic units,' and
   'non-morphemes' in 1961.

   I have pulled the above out of my 1966 thesis  _Reduplication in Pacoh_,
   _Hartford Studies in Linguistics_ No. 21, when I did quite a bit of
   research on the subject under Prof. William Samarin.

   However, I don't care to argue about how people may want to define them
   today.

   Dick


______________________________ Reply Separator _________________________________
Subject: Re: expressives
Author:  <lvhayes at worldnet.att.net> at Internet
Date:    8/22/00 6:53 AM


>Date: Tue, 22 Aug 2000 11:41:02 +0800
>From: Stephen Matthews <matthews at hkucc.hku.hk>
>
>- In SEAling there is a descriptive tradition regarding 'expressives'
>and/or 'elaborate expressions'
>- In African linguistics there is a tradition regarding 'ideophones'.
>What is the relationship between these two sets of phenomena?

How does the term "phonosemantic" fit in here?

LV Hayes
lvhayes at worldnet.att.net
http://home.att.net/~lvhayes/home.htm