Question for 19th Century Russian historians

[Jules Levin]

Dear Colleagues,
I belong to another list--Jewish genealogy--where as you may imagine 
topics related to SEELANGS sometimes
arise.  Recently someone posted the following remarks (I paraphrase) 
in a discussion of Jewish name usage
in 19th C Russia:  Jews were forbidden by the tsarist government to 
use certain biblical names because said names
were also used by Orthodox Russians.  One example was the name David.
My reaction is that this is wrong.  There was no such 
decree.  However, since I have already mentioned my academic
background on the list, I don't want to embarrass myself by disputing 
something that my actually have some validity.
I am not a historian.  Also, one would be defending a negative...
So are there any historians out there who would agree with the claim 
that the tsarist government prevented Jews from
using biblical names that were also used by Russians?
My thanks for your response.
Jules Levin
Los Angeles 

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