agreement of indicating verbs?

[Joe Martin]

On Fri, 21 May 1999, james macfarlane wrote:
>
> Where we draw the line between gestures vs. linguistic, if indeed we want
> to draw a line, is up for debate.  My advisor, Sherman Wilcox, provides
> some pretty good arguments for why we would want to leave the boundaries
> for these two elements fuzzy.
>
This seems very important, but I can't find anything published. It seems
to me that "linguistic" necessarily means "made up of discrete units."
Could you give an idea of the line of reasoning involved here?

.......................................................................
Joe Martin
Plain Old Ordinary Student
Western Washington U
Top Left Corner, USA