Directional Verbs / signed vs. spoken languages

[S Walker]

On Mar 28, 2009, at 9:59 AM, Patricia Raswant wrote:

> ...how is it possible to compare an aural language to a visual
> language?

Ok, I think I understand your question.  Suppose we are looking at
how to pronounce, say, the word, "boy" in spoken English vs. ASL.
If we try to say, "Well, the lips and tongue and vocal cords do this..."
and then we say, "Well, the hand and fingers and movement do this..."
then YES, comparing those two (simplistic!!) events are sort of  
pointless.

But what most responders here are trying to say (I think) is that it  
*IS*
possible to compare, say, "how do verbs work with nouns," or "how
does one word's phonology affect the next word's formation?"  In other
words, what generalities about language "behavior" (phonology,  
morphology,
syntax, etc.) can we compare and contrast between languages of all  
modalities
to understand how the brain works - or how languages work.

But you also say:
> ...considering the directional verb in ASL...  ...this is a unique  
> structure and can't
> be compared to a spoken language.  We should accept it for what it is.

I think this might fall under the explanation in the first paragraph  
-- that, yes,
if we're focusing on how the *physical* aspects of language formation  
work,
then maybe there are times when an event in a signed language simply has
no counterpoint in a spoken language.  But I believe the group here is  
looking
at underlying structure (e.g., how the parts and functions of language  
are
organized in the brain, or how languages "work").  Unless of course  
I'm wrong.   :-)

Just my 2 cents.  - Susan W.
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