Cane Juice (1931); SF Restaurants
Donald M Lance
lancedm at MISSOURI.EDU
Fri Jan 25 15:40:38 UTC 2002
I've always been puzzled by the construction. Is it "the priest of Judas"
(possessive), which would anachronistically be Jesus himself? Or does the
expression ironically bestow priesthood on Judas? Or is it just a complex
set of phonetic metatheses and substitutions (z --> d; k --> p, [ai] -->
[i]? I assume the latter, with no apostrophe.
> From: Benjamin Fortson <fortson at FAS.HARVARD.EDU>
> Reply-To: American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
> Date: Fri, 25 Jan 2002 09:21:12 -0500
> To: ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU
> Subject: Re: Cane Juice (1931); SF Restaurants
> Minor reaction: I guess I've never paid extremely close attention, but the
> spelling "Judas' priest" with apostrophe seems odd to me. As a fairly ordinary
> taboo-deformation of "Jesus Christ" it seems entirely unnecessary (for
> want of a better word) to make "Judas" possessive, either in the
> orthography or in pronunciation with an extra syllable (a pronunciation
> I've never heard, myself--anybody else heard it?).
> On Thu, 24 Jan 2002 Bapopik at AOL.COM wrote:
>> Pg. 108: "Judas' priest! L.S.U.'s a lousy school."
>> Pg. 109: "Judas' priest!" (As in "Judas's priest"?--ed.)
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