another semi-unrelated query: predicative vs. attribute adjectival inflection

[Carson Schutze]

Hello again,

Can anyone point me to references other than Bernstein and Kester on
explaining the difference between inflection on attributive adjectives and
lack thereof on predicative ones, in languages that have this difference
(e.g. German), and what makes these languages different from those in which
both kinds of adjectives are inflected (e.g. Italian)?  Also, am I right in
guessing that there aren't any languages that show the opposite pattern from
German? Thanks.

--

Prof. Carson T. Schutze      Department of Linguistics, UCLA
Email: cschutze at ucla.edu     Box 951543, Los Angeles CA  90095-1543  U.S.A.

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