[gothic-l] Runes

[Ingemar Nordgren]

>
> I have also been discussing language with some Icelanders.
> And they always point out to us "mainlanders" that we do not
> separate between "t" and "þ". But to them those are
> ENTIRELY different sounds. Thus, to say that Got is the
> same as Goþ is to them totally out of the question.
> We Scandinavian mainlanders living with a much flattened language,
> and we simply don't hear such differences any more. But in Old Norse
> they were not conceived as the same. And not in runic Norse either.
> Otherwise they would never have had two different runes for these two sounds:
>
>     |            /|\
>     |\     is     |
>     |/     not    |
>     |             |
>
>   Thurs  is not  Tyr!
>
> Best regards
> Keth

Hi Keth,

Thank you for your thorough explanation. I understand completly how you
mean. I am however a bit unsecure about the last sentence of runes. I
never wrote Thurs was Tyr. I just stated that Thurs could in Latin,
phonetical script be translated as either 'th' or 'ð' and sometimes as
'p'. It accordingly leaves a broad range of possible interpretations of
single words.

Kindly
Ingemar



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