[gothic-l] Re: Pronounciation

[ravichaudhary2000]

--- In gothic-l at y..., "Francisc Czobor" <fericzobor at y...> wrote:
> ...

Ø	According to Carlo Tagliavini ("Le origini delle lingue 
neolatine"), 
> the palatalization of Latin G before E and I (resulting "j" like in 
> English, later in some Romance languages French "j")
Ø	
****8
This is also for me not very clear.
For "C" the palatalization before e/i is attested in inscriptions 
beginning from the 3rd century, and according to specialists the 
palatalization of "G" before e/i should be parallel, thus beginning 
also from the 3rd century.
But there are two facts that suggest that these changes were not 
quite parallel.
1. As shown in my previous message, the palatalization of "G" is 
attested in inscriptions only from the 6th century, and for St. 
Augustine (4/5th century) the Latin "G" before "e" was still 
pronounced like in Greek, i.e. velar.
2. The two changes were not quite parallel. The "G" before e/i 
evolved the same way in all Romance languages: it became first a 
palatal affricate like the English "j" (this is the pronounciation in 
Italian, Romanian and Old French, whence in the French loanwords into 
English), than evolved further in the Western Romance languages: it 
became French "j" in French and Portuguese, whereas in Spanish this 
sound became a "sh" like in English, and finally the actual "jota" 
sound.


******
Ravi>> Let me see if I understand this.

In or about the 5th century BC ,there are a people, whom if ones 
reads an English translation of Herodotus( in the 21century i.e. 
today), is written as " Getae"

In the 4th century St Augustine, sees this  with the G sound  as  in 
Greek or Go.

In the 7th/8th century, the J sound appears.

The G sound has  changed to J.

The pronunciation of `Getae' is today `Jota.' Or `Jotah', the J 
sound !


Do I understand this correctly?


Thanks for the patience:

Ravi

***************



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