Word relation question

[David Kiltz]

On 20.12.2005, at 12:50, Fredrik wrote:

> Is the relation between þrinhan and þrangian the same as between sitan
> and satian (equivalent to swedish sitta, sätta and german sitzen,
> setzen)?

The formal relation is the same. However, not all _-jan_ verbs are  
causatives. There is a smaller (in Gothic very small) number that has  
'iterative' or 'intensive' meaning. On an Indo-European level, cf.  
e.g. Greek _petomai_ 'I fly' vs _poteomai_ 'I fly around, hither and  
thither'.
In cases like Goth. _thunkjan_ 'seem, appear (to be)' vs _thankjan_  
'to think'. An impersonal verb ("methinks, Germ. mich dünkt") is made  
into a transitive verb 'to think'. Cf. also ON _thekkia_ 'understand,  
know'.
The semantic relation in your case would be something like normal vs  
intensive, I suppose. (It continues, BTW, in German _dringen_ vs  
_drängen_).

David Kiltz

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