Translating Shakespeare

[anheropl0x at GMAIL.COM]

I know the conjugation and meaning. I was just wondering if they really were interchangeable or if there are instances where one is preferred over the other. 

---In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:

 Old English had two verbs which correspond to ModE 'to be', to wit, 'beon' and 'wesan'. 'Bith' is the third person sg. present indicative form of 'beon'. The latter verb was used especially to indicate a universal truth or habitual condition, or also futurity. The 'wesan'-counterpart here is 'is' (whence ModE 'is'). The full paradigm for the present indicative is:
 

 beon:
 ic beo
 thu bist
 he bith
 we beoth
 ge beoth
 hi beoth
 

 wesan:
 ic eom
 thu eart
 he is
 we sind(on)
 ge sind(on)
 hi sind(on)
 

 In the example sent, 'bith' could easily be replaced with 'is', as the two forms are not mutually exclusive.

 

 Edmund 
 

---In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:

 Is biþ the exact same as is, or is it subjunctive or something? I admit, I know next to nothing about OE.



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