ibirks at pratique.fr
Mon Nov 25 12:55:47 UTC 1996
Proto-Indoeuropean specialists differ on the origins of germanic and
Whilst many claim that English HAVE and Latin habere are cognate, some (eg
Watkins, Pokorny) suggest that HAVE comes from a perfective form of the PIE
form *KAP (grasp) whereas HABERE comes from *GHABH (give or receive).
Does anyone where I could find out more about:
- the conventional wisdom/ debate on this distinction (and others like it)?
- what significance this distinction might have in terms of our
understanding of the modern forms?
- what significance it might have in terms of our understanding of
My main interest is as follows- given that HAVE and Romance AVOIR, HABER,
AVERE, etc. maintain certain characteristics of the proto-form (although
some might dispute the nature/ direction of the causal relationship), what
differences in their modern usage might be attributed to a difference in
their root forms.
Thanks in advance,
<ibirks at pratique.fr>
Universit=E9 de Paris III
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