andera 'woman' Celtic ?

Larry Trask larryt at cogs.susx.ac.uk
Wed Apr 7 09:28:40 UTC 1999


On Tue, 6 Apr 1999, roslyn frank wrote:

[LT]

> >As far as I -- a non-specialist -- can see, the IE status of the word is
> >demonstrated, and there is no problem to be solved by appealing to an
> >implausible "Vasconic" influence.  And anyway Basque <andere> has both
> >the wrong form and the wrong meaning.

> Does this last comment mean that you believe the best simulation would
> be one that doesn't link the Euskera items <andere> and <andre-> in
> anyway whatsoever with the IE items? Including the Gk. ones?

Yes.  I can't see any persuasive reason to connect Basque <andere>
`lady' with anything in Greek.

By the way, it is clear that <andere> is the original form of the Basque
word.  This is the only form recorded in Aquitanian, and the first form
recorded in the medieval period (in 1085, according to Sarasola).  The
contracted form <andre> is first recorded in the 12th century; this
would have been unpronounceable in Pre-Basque/Aquitanian, but it now
predominates in a sizeable area of the country, though most of the east
retains <andere> today.

Larry Trask
COGS
University of Sussex
Brighton BN1 9QH
UK

larryt at cogs.susx.ac.uk



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