H1 and t??

[Miguel Carrasquer Vidal]

"Glen Gordon" <glengordon01 at hotmail.com> wrote:

>JENS ELMEGAARD RASMUSSEN:
>  That's what I believed until I succeeded in deriving them all from a
>  completely regular original system where Eng. you IS the acc.pl.
>  corresponding to nom.sg. thou. I had to invent some more sound laws,

>Still don't get it. How does *t- become *y-??

It's not that difficult to understand what Jens is saying,
whether one agrees or not.  The *y- in *yu:s is secondary, and we
have *u:s/*wos (Slavic vy < *(w)u:- and vasU, Lat. vo:s, Skt.
vas, Alb. ju < *u, etc.).  The nifty sound law then becomes *cw-
> w- (and I guess alternatively sw-, judging by Hitt. sume:s,
OIr. si:, We. chwi, Goth. i-zwis).  Interesting to note that
Greek hu:meis might be from all of *u:-, *su:-, *wu:- or *yu:-
(but not *tw-, which would have given s-).

Question for Jens: would this also work somehow for the numeral
"6"? (Arm. vec`, We. chwech, OPr. uschts "6th")

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv at wxs.nl
Amsterdam