A question about Greek or Latin

[petegray]

>What would you say to the alternate explanation that the causative formant is
>*-ye, and that its addition shifted the stress-accent one syllable to the
>right, preserving (or re-instating) an otherwise lost final vowel of the root?

I would ask which explanation were the simpler.   And alas, positing an
"otherwise lost" vowel just for causatives alone seems to me less simple
than positing a suffix -eye/o-.

I then ask which explanation is the better, and alas, I prefer the simpler.

Peter