A question about Greek or Latin

[petegray]

> What would you say to the alternate alternate explanation that the
> causative formant is merely an agglutinatated verb *[h1]ey-e-

The suggestion that it might be causes me no problem;  the assertion that it
is so would need proof.

I'm happy with the idea that all suffixes began life as independent
morphemes way back in early Ur-pre-proto-pre-PIE.  I think you mean more
than that, so we would need to find firm evidence for:
  (a) the existence of such a verb
  (b) the use of such a verb as a causative
  (c) the acceptance of this explanation as better than any alternative.

What about the "going" root Pokorny 296 *ei / *ia:  ?

Peter