[Lingtyp] Does bipolar polysemy exist?

Joo Ian ian.joo at outlook.com
Thu May 31 06:57:27 EDT 2018


Dear all,

I would like to know if the following universal claim holds:

There exists no lexeme that can mean X and the negation of X. (For example, no lexeme can express “to go” and “to not go”).

I wonder if such “bipolar polysemy” exists in any lexeme, because I cannot think of any, and whether this claim is truly universal.
I would appreciate to know if there is any counter-evidence.

>From Hong Kong,
Ian Joo
http://ianjoo.academia.edu
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