[Lingtyp] Does bipolar polysemy exist?

Frans Plank frans.plank at ling-phil.ox.ac.uk
Thu May 31 13:54:56 EDT 2018


And here, to complement Peter Lutzeier’s magnum opus, is Carl Abel’s classic — less magnum, but inspirational, among others fooling Sigmund Freud and Jacques Derrida, no less.

Handle with care.

Frans



On 31. May 2018, at 12:29, <g.corbett at surrey.ac.uk<mailto:g.corbett at surrey.ac.uk>> <g.corbett at surrey.ac.uk<mailto:g.corbett at surrey.ac.uk>> wrote:

For auto-antonyms, German Gegensinn, don’t miss Peter Lutzeier’s three volumes of amazing examples. German is full of them:

https://www.degruyter.com/view/serial/21594

Very best
Grev



On 31 May 2018, at 11:57, Joo Ian <ian.joo at outlook.com<mailto:ian.joo at outlook.com>> wrote:

Dear all,

I would like to know if the following universal claim holds:

There exists no lexeme that can mean X and the negation of X. (For example, no lexeme can express “to go” and “to not go”).

I wonder if such “bipolar polysemy” exists in any lexeme, because I cannot think of any, and whether this claim is truly universal.
I would appreciate to know if there is any counter-evidence.

From Hong Kong,
Ian Joo
http://ianjoo.academia.edu<http://ianjoo.academia.edu/>
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