LL-L: "Language politics" LOWLANDS-L, 26.AUG.2000 (03) [D/E]

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Sat Aug 26 20:16:36 UTC 2000


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  L O W L A N D S - L * 26.AUG.2000 (03) * ISSN 189-5582 * LCSN 96-4226
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From: Roger Thijs [roger.thijs at village.uunet.be]
Subject: Language politics

Cultural drain of "Flemish" kids to "French" schools in the area around
Brussels has been a concern in the past, and was considered to be a
predictor of the expansion of the Brussels "oil stain" into the Flemish
(actually Brabantish) municipalties around the francicized city.
This "problem" of the past is somehow stopped and in a process of reversal
since a couple of years. Flemish schools in these municipalities are
concerned about the quality level of their institutes and prepare to set a
numerous clausus to a max of 30 perc. non native Dutch speakers per
classroom.

quote from "De Standaard Aug 24, 2000":
Basisscholen Vlaamse rand overleggen.

De vrije (for "vrij" read "roman catholic" for most of the cases; "vrij" is

opposed to "official", referring to the schools of the governmental system)

Vlaamse basisscholen in de Vlaamse rand rond de hoofdstad willen een
gezamenlijk standpunt bepalen over het wenselijke percentage anderstalige
leerlingen in een school.
... Wemmel hanteert momenteel een maximum van 30 percent (anderstaligen)
per klas...

Regards,
Roger
r.thijs at ieee.org

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From: Matthew McGrattan <matthew.mcgrattan at brasenose.oxford.ac.uk>
Subject: Re: LL-L: "Language politics" LOWLANDS-L, 23.AUG.2000 (03)
[D/E/French]

> The first example reminds me of usage with latinate verbs in
> traditional Scots writing, e.g. "That wud be appreciate" (not
> "appreciateit") or "A'm acquent wae him" (not "acquentit").

I don't know if it's the influence of English on me but both of those
traditional Scots examples just seem "wrong" to me.

I would have to say "A wisnae acquentit wae him" - the "-it" ending
would not be optional to me.

I don't know enough about the history of Scots grammar to say - but is
this "regularisation" the effect of the influence of English or simply
there result of the same process - internal to the language rather
than driven from outside - that has led to various strong verbs in
English
(i.e. where, for example, the vowel changes to
reflect tense, etc "sing/sung/sang") becoming weak (i.e. those where
the
endings of the verb change - "climb, climbed", etc)?

(And actual historical example of this temporarily slips my mind...)

Thanks,

Matt

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