LL-L: "Language politics" 17.JUL.2000 (03) [E]

Lowlands-L sassisch at yahoo.com
Mon Jul 17 19:14:43 UTC 2000


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From: Edwin Michael Alexander [edsells at idirect.com]
Subject: LL-L: "Language politics" 16.JUL.2000 (03) [E]

At 04:27 PM 07/16/00 -0700, Sandy wrote:

> >This is criminal activity on the part of the government, which in
>the
>United Kingdom is legal since no British citizen is granted any human
>rights
>at all under English or Scots law.

"Democracy is the worst form of government, except for all the
others."  Winston Churchill.

Ed Alexander
JAG REALTY INC.
80 Jones Street Hamilton, Ontario, Canada L8R 1Y1
Pager: 905-545-0177  Fax: 905-525-6671 Email: edsells at idirect.com
Jag Realty Inc.: http://www.deerhurst.com/jag/
Ontario Ultra Series:  http://ous.kw.net/
Burlington Runners Club: http://www.deerhurst.com/brc/

----------

From: john feather [johnfeather at sceptic1.freeserve.co.uk]
Subject: Language politics

If Ron will let us have a bit more leeway on this I'd like to make a couple

of comments on the following remarks by Sandy.

>The UK government also can, and generally does, ignore the European
Community Human Rights charter, which is why so many UK human rights cases
ultimately have to be referred to the European Court. Moreover, as far as
the British government's concerned, English law applies all over the world
and
the Cabinet at Westminster have the right to amend, for example, the US
constitution! If you think that's nonsense, you're absolutely right, I've
never in my life seen such arrant, loony, bigoted nonsense - but it's the
law here!<

English law does not, of course, apply in Scotland, which is a pretty big
limitation on the idea that it applies all over the world! (Since I was
castigated before over my confusion of England and Britain - ER and EIIR
and
all that jazz - I am glad to have this opportunity to be very precise about

the distinction. :-))

I think it might be fairer to say that since the European Court of Human
Rights provides an avenue of appeal beyond the jurisdiction of the British
courts, it can often benefit people either to interpret cases as matters of

human rights or to claim that the legal process or verdict infringes those
rights. Compare the US legal system, in which it can be argued that killing

someone is an infringement of their civil rights.

I can't quite see how the British Parliament (not the Cabinet) could claim
to have the right to amend the US Constitution. To do so it would have
_both_ to admit the legality of a document drawn up by a bunch of rebels
_and_ claim that they had no right to define its form. Another nice paradox

you've gotten me into.

Does the US Constitution grant any linguistic rights?

Please note that I am not defending or supporting the British
constitutional
system, simply trying to clarify things.

John Feather johnfeather at sceptic1.freeserve.co.uk

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From: R. F. Hahn [sassisch at yahoo.com]
Subject: Language politics

John wrote:

> If Ron will let us have a bit more leeway on this ...

It's all right as long as the focus remains "*language* politics" and
passion can be controlled on all sides.

Regards,

Reinhard/Ron

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