LL-L "Phonology" 2003.04.17 (04) [E]

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Thu Apr 17 15:08:02 UTC 2003


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L O W L A N D S - L * 17.APR.2003 (04) * ISSN 189-5582 * LCSN 96-4226
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A=Afrikaans Ap=Appalachian B=Brabantish D=Dutch E=English F=Frisian
L=Limburgish LS=Lowlands Saxon (Low German) N=Northumbrian
S=Scots Sh=Shetlandic V=(West)Flemish Z=Zeelandic (Zeêuws)
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From: Frédéric Baert <baert_frederic at CARAMAIL.COM>
Subject: prononciation

Good day

I hope you had not ever discussed about this point. In this case, I didn't
find it.
I will be curious to know the origin of the prononciation of the _w_. In
French Flanders it is prononced like in English (typically the word
_waeter_). I think that in Frisian languages and in Northern Dutch dialects
it is prononced like in Standard German and in standard French. I don't
know the prononciation in low Saxon. Is the Flemish and English
prononciation of this letter inherited of ingwaeonic?
It has to be noted that French speakers in Nord-Pas de Calais (the area
just southern of the flemish speaking area)prononced the _w_ like Fleming
people. With prononciation of _r_, it's one of the characteristic way of
identification of people originated from Northern France by all French
people. It seems to demonstrate that flemish language had a strong
influence on the prononciation of the nearest French dialect "Picard".

Amically
Frederic Baert

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From: R. F. Hahn <sassisch at yahoo.com>
Subject: Phonology

Salut, Frédéric!

In Lowlands Saxon (Low German), what is written <w> is generally pronounced
[v].  However, I cannot speak for all dialects.  Those in the far west may
well have the same labiodental glide pronunciation that is predominant in
Dutch.

So, in the dialects I know, <w> and <v> are pronounced alike in most cases.
However, <v> is weird.  Word-initially it tends to be pronounced [f],
because the <v-> spelling is based on German spelling; e.g., _Vadder_
['fad3`] 'father' (G. _Vater_ ['fa:t3`]), _Vigelien_ [fige'li:n] 'violin'
(G. _Violine_).  Between vowels (or better to say, whenever it is not
morpheme-initial), <v> is pronounced [v]; e.g., _Aven_ ~ _Oven_ ['?Q:v=m]
'stove', 'oven'.  However, other dialects have [b] instead and write it as
<b>; e.g., _Aben_ ~ _Oben_ ['?Q:b=m] 'stove', 'oven'.  (So far, LS has no
orthographic standard.)  Old Saxon used a barred <b> in those places.  My
guess is that it was pronounced as a bilabial frivative, like Spanish <v>
and <b> in non-initial position.

Cheers!
Reinhard/Ron

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