LL-L "Morphology" 2004.01.26 (08) [E]

Lowlands-L lowlands-l at lowlands-l.net
Tue Jan 27 01:28:00 UTC 2004


======================================================================
L O W L A N D S - L * 26.JAN.2004 (08) * ISSN 189-5582 * LCSN 96-4226
http://www.lowlands-l.net * lowlands-l at lowlands-l.net
Rules & Guidelines: http://www.lowlands-l.net/index.php?page=rules
Posting Address: lowlands-l at listserv.linguistlist.org
Server Manual: http://www.lsoft.com/manuals/1.8c/userindex.html
Archives: http://listserv.linguistlist.org/archives/lowlands-l.html
Encoding: Unicode (UTF-8) [Please switch your view mode to it.]
=======================================================================
You have received this because you have been subscribed upon request.
To unsubscribe, please send the command "signoff lowlands-l" as message
text from the same account to listserv at listserv.linguistlist.org or
sign off at http://linguistlist.org/subscribing/sub-lowlands-l.html.
=======================================================================
A=Afrikaans Ap=Appalachian B=Brabantish D=Dutch E=English F=Frisian
L=Limburgish LS=Lowlands Saxon (Low German) N=Northumbrian
S=Scots Sh=Shetlandic V=(West)Flemish Z=Zeelandic (Zeêuws)
=======================================================================

From: Tom Maguire <jmaguire at pie.xtec.es>
Subject: LL-L "Morphology" 2004.01.26 (01) [E]

> So the question is, do other latine languages have such a way to express
> future or is French the only to have it. In this case, it might be one
more
> feature of Frankish influence on French which makes it the "most germanic
> of the latine languages" as i read it in a book about evolution of the
> French.
>
> Cheers
> Frédéric Baert

Hello Frederic and All,

In  response to the Latin language question of proximate Future, Spanish
has the formula "Voy a ir" which coincides with the French "Je vais y
aller." to express future. Curiously enough the Catalan expression is
"Vaig anar-hi." which means "I went", not "I am going to go.", as
expected. I believe that the Roman/Latin language Empire was much more
imposing than any other of the same epoch and that basic influence ran
from Latin to Germanic and not inversely.

Within these postings on "Morphology" is there an underlying
desire/ideology to seek the Germanic influence on Latin?
Given that Germania and Scotland were the only 2 areas that did not
completely succumb to Roman influence in Northern Europe, is it really
believable that the non-latin dialects would affect the latin dialects
in their tenses forms?

Regards,

Tom
--
Carpe Diem.
-Visit Nlp in Education  http://www.xtec.es/~jmaguire
-Join Nlp-Education  mailto:nlp-education-subscribe at yahoogroups.com
-Join Seal-Spain  mailto:seal-spain-subscribe at yahoogroups.com

================================END===================================
* Please submit postings to lowlands-l at listserv.linguistlist.org.
* Postings will be displayed unedited in digest form.
* Please display only the relevant parts of quotes in your replies.
* Commands for automated functions (including "signoff lowlands-l") are
  to be sent to listserv at listserv.linguistlist.org or at
  http://linguistlist.org/subscribing/sub-lowlands-l.html.
======================================================================



More information about the LOWLANDS-L mailing list