LL-L "What does it mean?" 2008.06.02 (08) [E]

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L O W L A N D S - L - 02 June 2008 - Volume 08
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From: jonny <jonny.meibohm at arcor.de>
Subject: LL-L "What does it mean?" 2008.06.02 (03) [E]

 Beste Doug, dear Lowlanners,

Doug schreyv, answering to

*"vynde boddeme maket vynde gut unde vynde gut maket vynde boddeme"*

the aphorism might mean something like "Bad ship, bad cargo; bad cargo, bad
ship" or so, where "bad" could be either "evil" or "enemy". Exact
application not obvious to me.
This is, for my guess, one very interesting interpretation of the
conundrum!!! (Sorry- trying to open your link I just found a lot of
possibilities to get furtheron...)

Thanks, nevertheless, to all the other guesses, dear people!

Hope we're going on.

Allerbest!

Jonny Meibohm

----------

From: Douglas G. Wilson <douglas at nb.net>
Subject: LL-L "What does it mean?" 2008.06.02 (03) [E]

*"vynde boddeme maket vynde gut unde vynde gut maket vynde boddeme"*
*vynde:*   *1. winds*
*         2. enemies*
**
*boddeme:* *1. the bottom(s) of a of ship*
                     *2.    (a) special type of ship(s)*
*                      3. (a) shallow part(s) of the sea, near the coast, in
special used in the Baltic Sea*
**
*maket:**   make (3rd pers. sing/pl)*
**
*gut:**     good*
**
*unde:*    *and*

Who is able to solve this conundrum?

 Probably not I, since I am ignorant of Low Saxon.
>
> Here is the aphorism with some context which is not fully legible to me.
>
>
> http://books.google.com/books?id=lPsDAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA16&dq=%22vynde+boddeme%22&lr=&as_brr=0<
> http://books.google.com/books?id=lPsDAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA16&dq=%22vynde+boddeme%22&lr=&as_brr=0
> >
>
> I would guess:
>
> "vynde" = "enemy" (or "devil") (cf. German "Feind")
>
> "boddeme" = "[cargo] ship" (cf. English "bottom" = "[cargo] ship")
>
> "gut" = "cargo" (cf. English "goods", German "Gueter")
>
> Then the aphorism might mean something like "Bad ship, bad cargo; bad
> cargo, bad ship" or so, where "bad" could be either "evil" or "enemy". Exact
> application not obvious to me.
>
> Just a guess.
>

But it's looking like a good guess after all. Compare this, from Thomas
Jefferson (1793):

http://books.google.com/books?id=Q7yp1S0B9lgC&pg=PA282&dq=%22enemy+bottoms%22&lr=&num=100&as_brr=0

<<On the contrary, we suppose it to have been long an established principle
of the law of nations, that the goods of a friend are free in an enemy's
vessel, and an enemy's goods lawful prize in the vessel of a friend. The
inconvenience of this principle, which subjects merchant vessels to be
stopped at sea, searched, ransacked, led out of their course, has induced
several nations latterly to stipulate against - it by treaty, and to
substitute another in its stead, that _free bottoms shall make free goods,
and enemy bottoms enemy goods,_ a rule equal to the other in point of loss
and gain, but less oppressive to commerce.>>

There are numerous parallel examples (Google "enemy bottoms" for example), I
guess mostly in the literature of international/maritime law.

-- Doug Wilson

•

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