Simple Grammar Question

[Chew G]

I apologize for returning to this after the thread has stopped, but am just curious how far the results of the thread apply to an earlier form of Czech too. I'm reading a text published in 1908 which includes the following representative sentences, which could be construed as emphatic negatives of the sort quoted by some list members in Russian to justify the use of the genitive.  What is the difference in meaning if any between these sentences and the equivalent with genitive replaced by accusative?  When did this usage become obsolete?
 
(of a girl whose mother had died in her infancy:) I matky nepoznala.
(of a husband who hated his wife:) Nemel klidu, ani kdyz prisla zpráva o její smrti.
 
Thanks for any enlightenment
Geoff
 
 Geoffrey Chew
 g.chew at rhul.ac.uk

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From: SEELANGS: Slavic & East European Languages and Literatures list on behalf of Nola

> I apologise for asking this Russian grammar question on this list, but so far, I can't get a satisfactory answer yet anywhere else.I have 
> asked Russians, who know what should be said, but not why or about the rule which applies.
> I am having trouble with a sentence which could have either genitive or accusative case applied to the last word. The Russian speakers 
> told me to use the accusative case. Okay..I will, but I need to know a rule so that I can know when to choose accusative over genitive in
> others like this.
> ???? ????????? ?? ????? ??????????.( or ???????????)

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