(Fwd) RE: intonational marking of negation

[Mark A Mandel]

I am uncomfortable with equating "non-manual" with "prosodic" (in sign
languages).  If I recall correctly, when that parallel was originally
drawn, non-manual SL phonology was a new discovery within SL
linguistics, and people drew the analogy (whether explicitly or not)

        lexical  :   prosodic
 ::
        segmental:   non-segmental  (spoken languages)
 ::
        manual   :   non-manual     (signed languages)

But I do not think it appropriate to automatically equate non-manual
activity in signed languages with intonational activity in spoken ones.

-- Mark A. Mandel