(Fwd) RE: intonational marking of negation

[Dan Parvaz]

Hi Mark,

> I am uncomfortable with equating "non-manual" with "prosodic" (in sign
> languages).

[snip]

> But I do not think it appropriate to automatically equate non-manual
> activity in signed languages with intonational activity in spoken ones.

I'm not entirely sure -- still figuring all this out, of course, and
will be for years to come -- that "prosodic" and "intonational" are
necessarily the same thing. Can we draw this discussion out a bit?

Cheers,

Dan.