Spanish /g/

[Aaron E. Drews]

>Or at least /los anxeles/. But can anyone tell us whether that /n/ is
>actually
>realized as a velar nasal before the velar fricative: [los aNxeles]?


Yes, it is.  Nasal assimilation is very common in most varieites of
Spanish.

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Aaron E. Drews                               The University of Edinburgh
http://www.ling.ed.ac.uk/~aaron          Departments of English Language
+44 (0)131 650-3485                                      and Linguistics
aaron at ling.ed.ac.uk

"MERE ACCUMULATION OF OBSERVATIONAL EVIDENCE IS NOT PROOF"
        --Death