Spanish /g/

[Mark_Mandel at DRAGONSYS.COM]

"Aaron E. Drews" <aaron at LING.ED.AC.UK> writes:

>>>>>
>    [...] But can anyone tell us whether that /n/ is actually
>realized as a velar nasal before the velar fricative: [los aNxeles]?

Yes, it is.  Nasal assimilation is very common in most varieites of
Spanish.
<<<<<

Thank you. And I suspect that the heard difference between [n] and [N], which is
phonemic in English although not in Spanish, could bias an English-speaking
listener toward the English velar /g/ instead of its homograph /dZ/.

-- Mark