none...have/has

[P2052 at AOL.COM]

According to many grammar books, the number of the indefinite pronouns, such
as "some," "all," none," etc., depends on the number of the object of the
preposition.
Thus, if the object is considered singular, the singular verb is used;
likewise, when the object is plural, so should the verb be.   The following
are examples:
"Some of the money is. . . ."   "Some of the people are. . . ."       None of
the cake is. . . ."  "None of the cakes are. . . ."    All of the protest is.
. . ."
"All of the protests are. . . ."
 I don't know how stilted your example would sound, but, in light of the
above rule, it would be considered inaccurate.
                                                 PAT
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