"stained" = "drunk"?

Joel S. Berson Berson at ATT.NET
Tue Aug 1 03:36:47 UTC 2006


Why does OED2 have nothing for "stained" =
"drunk" other than, under "stain, v.", the
following definition and single
citation?  (Googling, I find at least one instance.)

†[5.]g. To ‘obfuscate’, make tipsy. Obs.
    1614 B. Jonson Barth. Fair i. iii, Why? we
were all a little stain'd last night, sprinckled with a cup or two.

Joel

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