[Ads-l] "slave" vs. "enslaved person" revisited?

[Amy West]

On 5/22/16 12:00 AM, ADS-L automatic digest system wrote:
> Date:    Sat, 21 May 2016 21:58:13 -0400
> From:    Dan Goncharoff<thegonch at GMAIL.COM>
> Subject: Re: "slave" vs. "enslaved person" revisited?
>
> Since you prostitute yourself, the noun seems strange.

No, not in the case of sex/human trafficking. You are prostituted by 
others (the traffickers, the pimps, etc.) or by conditions.
(And that's one of the problems that Steinem has developed with the 
feminist backing of sex work: she sees that much of it is forced by 
economics and so is not the free choice that many allege it is. [IIRC])

---Amy West


> On May 21, 2016 7:21 PM, "Laurence Horn"<laurence.horn at yale.edu>  wrote:
>
>> >Last week's NYT Magazine had a cover story by Emily Bazelon revisiting the
>> >criminal status of prostitution.  This weekend's Magazine prints a letter
>> >to the editor from Gloria Steinem that contains two references to
>> >"prostituted people" and none to "prostitute(s)".
>> >
>> >http://www.nytimes.com/2016/05/22/magazine/the-5-816-issue.html?_r=0
>> >
>> >Noun aversion again? (A quick browse of Google suggests that others employ
>> >both terms, although I didn't try to see if they're used interchangeably in
>> >such cases.)
>> >
>> >LH
>> >------------------------------------------------------------
>> >The American Dialect Society -http://www.americandialect.org
>> >
> ------------------------------------------------------------
> The American Dialect Society -http://www.americandialect.org
>
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