Agentive verbs
Wolfgang Schulze
W.Schulze at lrz.uni-muenchen.de
Wed Sep 5 07:37:26 UTC 2007
Dear Ron,
it would perhaps be good to know which type of empirical facts you refer
to. First: Do you think of a lexicon-based or of a usage-based
distribution? By the first I mean a distributional pattern that is built
upon the lexical entries of a given language. Usage-based refers to the
actual use of (here:) verbal concepts in texts and conversation etc. My
own impression is that the number of say "non-agentive" verbs is much
higher with respect to lexicon-based data than to usage-based data.
Nevertheless, the patterns showing up in usage-based data naturally
depends from the type of texts at issue. Second: Do you think of a
purely semantic analysis, that is a classification of verbs based on
their semantic properties (which always is a bit risky), or do you mean
a 'visible' classification that emerges from the analysis of
morphosyntactic behavioral patterns (such as S-Split, causativization
constraints, TAM-constraints, agreement patterns, case marking etc.)? As
for concrete data: I can only give you a rough calculus for usage-based
data from Udi (East Caucasian, corpus size: 100.000 words): Here, we
have roughly 75 % agentive verbs (in your sense) and 20 % non-agentive
verbs (the rest is constituted by copula constructions).
Best wishes,
Wolfgang
kuzar at research.haifa.ac.il wrote:
> I believe this is the right forum for this question:
> Is it an empirically confirmed fact that agentive verbs constitute the majority
> of verbs in (a particular?) language? By "agentive verbs" I mean verbs that
> require a human subject exercising volition/intention in performing the action
> of the verb.
> Any statistics?
> Ron Kuzar
>
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