Pragmatical similarity between 1p imperative and indicative?

[Henrik Rosenkvist]

Hi!

In a paper I am working with I argue that first person imperatives are 
(pragmatically) quite similar to indicatives, since a request aimed at 
oneself rarely is denied. However, I have no references to lean on here, 
and therefore I wonder: do you agree about the similarity, and has 
anyone written about this?

best

Henrik

-- 
Henrik Rosenkvist
docent, nordiska språk
Språk- och litteraturcentrum
Lunds universitet
Box 201
221 00 Lund
tel: 046-222 87 04
e-post: Henrik.Rosenkvist at nordlund.lu.se

Henrik Rosenkvist
Assistant Professor, Scandinavian Languages
Dept. of Languages and Literature
Lund University
P. O. Box 201, SE-221 00 Lund, SWEDEN
Tel.: +46 46 222 87 04
E-mail: Henrik.Rosenkvist at nordlund.lu.se