Pragmatical similarity between 1p imperative and indicative?

[A. Katz]

In languages that I am familiar with, there is no first person imperative. 
The imperative is marked as second person, and even when someone commands 
himself to do something, he is addressing himself in second person, as if 
he were someone else.

    --Aya Katz

http://hubpages.com/profile/Aya+Katz

On Wed, 26 May 2010, Henrik Rosenkvist wrote:

> Hi!
>
> In a paper I am working with I argue that first person imperatives are 
> (pragmatically) quite similar to indicatives, since a request aimed at 
> oneself rarely is denied. However, I have no references to lean on here, and 
> therefore I wonder: do you agree about the similarity, and has anyone written 
> about this?
>
> best
>
> Henrik
>
> -- 
> Henrik Rosenkvist
> docent, nordiska språk
> Språk- och litteraturcentrum
> Lunds universitet
> Box 201
> 221 00 Lund
> tel: 046-222 87 04
> e-post: Henrik.Rosenkvist at nordlund.lu.se
>
> Henrik Rosenkvist
> Assistant Professor, Scandinavian Languages
> Dept. of Languages and Literature
> Lund University
> P. O. Box 201, SE-221 00 Lund, SWEDEN
> Tel.: +46 46 222 87 04
> E-mail: Henrik.Rosenkvist at nordlund.lu.se
>
>
>
>