rarity of preposition stranding
Frederick J Newmeyer
fjn at u.washington.edu
Fri Oct 1 19:13:13 UTC 2010
On Fri, 1 Oct 2010, Tom Givon wrote:
> Well, I DID mean massive. I'm not as well-versed in Germanic, tho I see it
> there too (Bernd Heine could tell you aplenty). So just think Latin for a
> sec: Pre-tend, ex-tend, in-tend, con-tend; per-tain; con-tain, re-tain,
> su(b)-stain, main-tain, ob-tain; re-pulse, ex-pulse, im-pulse, com-pulse;
> re-ject, e(x)-ject, in-ject, ob-ject; con-ject(ure); con-struct, in-strtuct,
> de-struct, re-struct(ure); etc. ect. ect. There's a whole page of those in
> my Syntax vol. I (2001), one of the early chapters, mostly talking about the
> metaphoric etymology, which we know well. (George made a lot of hay off this,
> claiming that metaphors never die, they just go & get reified in some lexical
> Heave...). But we also know a lot (well, some of us do, maybe) about the
> diachronic-syntax pathways that lead to such 'stranding', & how it connect to
> the type of ad-position, earlier vs. later WO, zero-anaphora of both types,
> the availability of other clitic-trapping word-types, ets. All that is needed
> is widening our typological--and diachronic, really the same thing--horizons
> just a little bit and what seems to you so exceptional reveals itself to be
> rather massive. Best, TG
I see. Then we mean something very different by 'preposition stranding'. Let me rephrase my question:
Does anybody have an explanation for why constructions of the following form are so rare crosslinguistically:
question-word (did) subject V P?
...where 'question-word' is a free morpheme and understood as the object of P.
Such constructions are extremely rare in I-E and crosslinguistically, as far as I know.
--fritz
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