[gothic-l] Athanareiks = Heidrek?

[Frank Kermes]

(snip)
>  That's rather obvious. Time and again one comes across
>gothic nouns ending in -s, corresponding to protogermanic's
>-z and Norse -r. Take fish: fisk|a|z in its three morphems,
>which in ON becomes fiskr or fiskur. Its this correspondence
>-z to r I tried to hit at.

Obvious, and the result of my thinking out loud (or in print) <grin>

>
>So then, can germ. "aiza" can become Swe. "ära"
>etymologically; honor, respect, repute?
>
>  First, Frank points at this evolution being a rule when we
>are talking about _terminal_ /R/. It may seem a problem I
>guess that in aiza the -z- is not terminal.

Maybe a problem, but I was using the rule as an example of what can happen
to those particular consonant groups.

But I in the
>stem it is, since the stem could have been "haiz" (knowing
>that i.e. roots always started with a consonant and was
>constructed by two consonants and one vowel) and hence the h
>here a laryngeal, which disappeared in most languages.
>
> > . . .  wait, cognitive flash!
>
>Me too . . . contagious? :-D  What if the initial laryngeal
>was kept and thus gave origin to both hauhiths, *haiths,
>haid- and "heder" in addition to the dropped-laryngeal
>(h)aiza, ai(u)r, "ära"??
>
>I'd like to know what Matt thinks of this bold theory.
>
>I admit that when it comes to athan with a presumed stem of
>*hat- or *hath- is a little difficult to reconcile with the
>stem *haiz- (is it?) so Athanareiks and Heidrek may then
>have different origins but convey two different kinds of
>honor.

They're all dental (or at least "frontal") consonants, and may be
interchangeable to some extent through various languages.

My original hypothesis was that "Heidrek" was substituted in a language
where the "Athanareiks" was no longer familiar.  Though another possibility
is that Heidrek (the /d/ actually being an /eth/ in the Herverarsaga MS.)
was a "contraction" of Athanareiks, where the voiced nasal /n/ in the
unstressed syllable was lost (cf. /ng/ in OE "Hengest"-ON "Hestr, though the
case ending is retained . . .  bad example, I guess).

But the "contraction" idea means that the laryngeal /h/ would have to be
added-(which might account for the raising of the vowel)- is that
possible/probable?

Not that this question is a big deal to my research, it's just rather
interesting--and can be applied to other questions, too.

Cheers,
Frank
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