[gothic-l] Re: Pronounciation

[Francisc Czobor]

Dear Ravi,
I am not a linguist, I only used the arguments of Tagliavini, one of
the most proeminent specialists in Romance languages.
His arguments seem to be widely accepted by those working in Romanic
linguistics.
Francisc

--- In gothic-l at y..., "ravichaudhary2000" <Ravi9 at h...> wrote:
> Dear, Francisc
>
> To continue my education, and allow me to go a little slowly..
>
> The G sound in "Getae" mid 5th century BC changes into the J sound
> sometime in the our AD era, possibly 5th century and the word is
then
> pronounced as Jota or Jotah.
>
> (These dates are rough markers only we can always go into detail
> later.)
>
> Now what are the arguments a trained linguist would use against
your
> argument, and how would you counter the arguments!!
>
> There will be people who will argue against your understanding.
>
> If you do not mind and have the patience, please elaborate and
> expound on this.
>
> I am very interested
>
> Ravi
>
>
> ****************
>
> Dear Ravi,
>
> roughly speaking, you did understand it correctly, with the remark
> that the "j" sound (like in English "job" etc.) appeared earlier,
no
> later than the 5/6th century.
> It was not a sudden change, but an evolution conditionned by the
> palatal nature of the following vowel (e or i), something like:
> g > gy > dy > dj > j
> The first stage was probably achieved in classical Latin time
> (already before 0 AD), fact demonstrated by some phonetic changes
in
> classical Latin:
> Arhaic Latin helu > Classical Latin holu
> but celu and gelu remain unchanged (without the evolution e>o
> before "l"), that proves the palatal nature of g and c before e
> (pronounced probably at that time like gy, respectively ky).
> However at that time the "gy" sound was only a slightly palatalized
> [g] and was not perceived as something different from normal "g".
>
> Francisc
>
>
> --- In gothic-l at y..., "ravichaudhary2000" <Ravi9 at h...> wrote:
> > ...
> > Ravi>> Let me see if I understand this.
> >
> > In or about the 5th century BC ,there are a people, whom if ones
> > reads an English translation of Herodotus( in the 21century i.e.
> > today), is written as " Getae"
> >
> > In the 4th century St Augustine, sees this with the G sound as
> in
> > Greek or Go.
> >
> > In the 7th/8th century, the J sound appears.
> >
> > The G sound has changed to J.
> >
> > The pronunciation of `Getae' is today `Jota.' Or `Jotah', the J
> > sound !
> >
> >
> > Do I understand this correctly?
> >
> >
> > Thanks for the patience:
> >
> > Ravi
> >


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