question relating to Wielbark and Scandinavian burial customs
Егоров Владимир
vegorov at IPIRAN.RU
Thu Jan 26 13:26:37 UTC 2006
****************
Hi Konrad!
The question you have brought up for discussion is really very
interesting. I took an interest in a similar issue in connection
with the Chernyachov culture that is regarded nowadays as
a probable successor of the Wielbark culture. Characteristic for
the Chernyachov culture is arbitrary alternating cremations
and inhumations with totally almost equal ratio of both.
For this culture, with the "political" leadership of the Goths
and anthropologically fixed prevalence of Sarmatian population,
such a mixture looks natural as the nomads always used inhumation
while the Goths (and probably the Slavs as well, but I do not want
to incorporate the Slavic disputable topic into our consideration)
should cremate their decedents. Nevertheless, I did not find any
specific researches on this matter though the overall impression
remains that the answer might be not so trivial. However that
may be, dissemination of inhumations among cremations in
Scandinavia cannot be explained so simply. In respect of
the Chernyachov culture, I have suggested in due time three
possible reasons for possible replacements of incineration by
just burial. Those were:
(1) a decedent was unworthy of cremation;
(2) there was not enough fuel (firewood) at the time or at
the scene;
(3) there was not enough time or available forces (people)
at the time.
Due to attestation of Ibn-Fadlan ("the funerals of a noble Rus"
in the description of his Travels to Volga), it has been accepted
that cremation provided to the dead a direct way to Elysium.
Accordingly, the right to set fire to a pile has been considered
as an honor granted usually to a next of kin or close friend.
And you should keep in mind that stocking a pile with amount
of firewood sufficient to reduce a body to ashes is a heavy task.
It requires time and many hands. Not always both are present
in time. Perhaps the widely known Scandinavian custom of
the Viking Age to burn up seafarers in their ships was born in
woodless areas where there was no other fuel. (The same used
to do the ancient Greeks long before the Vikings if we entrust
to the film "Troy".)
I believe some of my argumentations are applicable to the Wielbark
culture as well as Scandinavia.
Regards,
Vladimir
-----Original Message-----
From: gothic-l at yahoogroups.com [mailto:gothic-l at yahoogroups.com]On
Behalf Of akoddsson
Sent: Wednesday, January 25, 2006 9:17 PM
To: gothic-l at yahoogroups.com
Subject: [gothic-l] Re: question relating to Wielbark and Scandinavian
burial customs
Tore, thank you for the link below.
I have been reading about iron age scandinavian burial customs for
some time, even visiting sites myself. Also, in reading about the
Wielbark finds some months ago, I quickly noticed that they matched
the overall scandinavian pattern. This book also confirms this.
However, one thing which is not explained here, or in other sources
that I have seen, is the difference about cremation and inhumation
burials, which is found in the Wielbark culture and throughout all
of Scandinavian during this period. What I am wondering is, why were
some members burned and others inhumed? This book mentions a young
girl inhumed over an older cremation grave, and similar mixes occur
widely in the archeaological finds from this period. There must have
been some reason why occasional inhumations occured in a culture
which otherwise cremated its dead, like other IE folk. IE religion,
as attested in Hinduism, for example, strongly favours cremation,
and various theological reasons are given for this, such as the view
that man is spirit and not matter; furthermore, there is no belief
in a future physical recurrection of bodies from the earth, such as
in the semetic traditions (Judaism, Christianity, Islam). Clearly,
Goths from the Wielbark area, as from Gotland, and Scandinavians
more widely, shared a common view about the insignificance of the
body after death, which was generally cremated. However, we do find
inhumations as well. The question is: why? Do you know of links to
articles on this topic, footnotes or comments about it, etc.? One
thing that I suspect, but cannot confirm, is the existence of some
kind of legal stricture about the cremation/inhumation issue in the
oral laws of this period, probably connected to a religious belief
of some kind. Otherwise, one suspects that either form of burial
would become quickly universal at the expense of the other. This is
not what the archeaological record shows. On the contrary, the two
forms coexist throughout the entire roman iron age, even as far back
as 1000BC in Scandinavia (which is technically later Scandinavian
bronze age), but with cremation as the clear overall victor, both in
sites where inhumation also occurs, as well as in those where only
cremation occurs (sites vary widely in the number of finds, etc.).
Finally, let me rephrase my question: what was the reason for the
simulteaneous occurance of cremation and inhumation over such a long
period? Why did inhumation not just die out completely, but instead
staggered along in the shadow of cremation for such a long period?
Could there have been a legal stricture, or belief, which caused the
continued inhumation of certain individuals, but not most? Could the
age of the deceased, for instance, have had something to do with it,
social position, manner of death, or reputation?
Regards,
Konrad.
--- In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, Tore Gannholm <tore at g...> wrote:
>
> Hi,
> Have you read Kaliff's book "Gothic connections"
>
>
http://www.stavgard.com/Gotland/gothicconnectio_/gothic/default.htm
>
> Tore
>
>
>
>
>
> On Jan 25, 2006, at 11:16 AM, Wilhelm Otto wrote:
>
> > Dear Gothic list,
> >
> > Is this a chat list just for the language itself or for a wider
> > approach to
> > the gothic culture, as history?
> >
> > If it serves the later purpose as well I will raise a subject.
I
> > have just
> > read Peter Heather:
> >
> > "The Goths" and this book gives me an entirely new view of the
old
> > gothic
> > world. He tells us about Jordanes' Gethica and claims that it is
among
> > contemporary historians Jordanes' fault that people still
believe
> > the Goths
> > originated in Scandinavia before moving across the Baltic.
> > Secondly, from at
> > least the the third century the Goths was divided into two
groups: the
> > Visgoths and the Ostrogoths and thirdly that these groups were
led
> > by two
> > families with unique royal prestige, the Balthi and the Amals.
> >
> > These ideas, Peter Heather says, have set an agenda around
which
> > argument
> > has raged.
> >
> >
> >
> > I have been trying to discuss the first of these topics, the
> > exodus, on a
> > Swedish chat list and am very confused by the response. There
are
> > members
> > who claim there has been an exodus, although Peter Heather
claims
> > that the
> > dating of relevant objects from both sides of the Baltic shows
that
> > there
> > has been none. And Peter Heather seems to be a man who to day
> > carries the
> > weight of argument. I have a general feeling that in Sweden the
Gothic
> > exodus is a valueloaded topic, and that it is difficult to give
it
> > a fair
> > treatment.
> >
> >
> >
> > For me this is a matter of preserving my bearings in a world I
> > thought was
> > rational, at least in these circumstances.
> >
> >
> >
> > Is this a topic for the Gothic list?
> >
> > Wilhelm Otto
> >
>
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