Toledo
Abdoer-Ragmaan Lombard
manielombard at CHELLO.AT
Tue May 29 18:12:36 UTC 2007
Yes of course. Emphatic konsonants (ص , ط and ق) kind of darken
vowels.
Plato: Aflâtûn (Aflāṭūn, افلاطون)
consul: qunsul (qunṣul, قنصل)
Antonius: Antûniyûs (Anṭūniyūs, انطونيوس)
stabulum: istabl (iṣṭabl, اصطبل)
tabula: tâwula (ṭāwula, طاولة) [to ensure "taa", and not "tæ"]
imperator: imbarâtûr (imbarāṭūr, امبراطور)
Goth: qût (qūṭ, قوط)
Somal(i): sûmâl (ṣūmāl, صومال)
Tolun (Turkish, cf. Tulunids): Tûlûn (Ṭūlūn, طولون)
Corduba (Córdoba): Qurtuba (Qurṭuba, قرطبة)
Oreto (in Spain): Urît (Urīṭ, اريط)
Tortosa: Turtusha (Ṭurṭua, طرطشة)
Aristotle: Aristû (Arisṭū, ارسطو)
Elisabet (Greek, Elizabeth): Alîsâbât, Ilîsâbât (Alīṣābāt or
Ilīṣābāt, اليصابات)
Petros (Greek, Peter): Bitrus, Butrus (Biṭrus or Buṭrus, بطرس)
and many, many more.
> Is it normal in loanwords from Latin into Arabic for Latin /o/ to
be represented in
> this way, by making a neighboring consonant emphatic? Are there
other
> examples?
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