Toledo

[Abdoer-Ragmaan Lombard]

Yes of course. Emphatic konsonants (ص , ط and ق) kind of darken 
vowels.

Plato: Aflâtûn (Aflāṭūn, افلاطون)

consul: qunsul (qunṣul, قنصل)

Antonius: Antûniyûs (Anṭūniyūs, انطونيوس)

stabulum: istabl (iṣṭabl, اصطبل)

tabula: tâwula (ṭāwula, طاولة) [to ensure "taa", and not "tæ"]

imperator: imbarâtûr (imbarāṭūr, امبراطور)

Goth: qût (qūṭ, قوط)

Somal(i): sûmâl (ṣūmāl, صومال)

Tolun (Turkish, cf. Tulunids): Tûlûn (Ṭūlūn, طولون)

Corduba (Córdoba): Qurtuba (Qurṭuba, قرطبة)

Oreto (in Spain): Urît (Urīṭ, اريط)

Tortosa: Turtusha (Ṭurṭuša, طرطشة)

Aristotle: Aristû (Arisṭū, ارسطو)

Elisabet (Greek, Elizabeth): Alîsâbât, Ilîsâbât (Alīṣābāt or 
Ilīṣābāt, اليصابات)

Petros (Greek, Peter): Bitrus, Butrus (Biṭrus or Buṭrus, بطرس)

and many, many more.



> Is it normal in loanwords from Latin into Arabic for Latin /o/ to 
be represented in
> this way, by making a neighboring consonant emphatic?  Are there 
other
> examples?


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