More about numbers
Fredrik
gadrauhts at HOTMAIL.COM
Mon Jun 9 10:32:29 UTC 2008
--- In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, "llama_nom" <600cell at ...> wrote:
>
> --- In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, "Fredrik" <gadrauhts@> wrote:
> >
> > In crimean they count with ite as one.
> > What is that? Is it from ita = it?
>
> Busbecq actually cites it as 'ita'. Yes, I think probably is from
the
> personal pronoun spelt the same in Biblical Gothic, unless perhaps
> it's a contraction from the numeral 'ainata'. This could well have
> happened if it was used in unstressed positions, e.g. if it came to
be
> used as an indefinite article as in many other Germanic languages.
>
Yes that seems to a reasonable explanation. When unstressed would it
be enata then?
> >
> > According to zompist the word for one is ene, what's the evidence
of
> > that? http://zompist.com/euro.htm#ie
>
> Must be a mistake, or somebody tried to reconstruct the masculine
form
> of 1 without realising that 2 and 3 are also neuter.
>
OK, but when used with masculine nouns it should be used. Shouldn't a
masculine be just en or ens if -s suffix is kept?
> >
> > Why do the numbers in crimean gothic end with -e?
> > e.g. sevene, nyne and thiine?
>
> I don't know. Maybe the final -e in these numbers arose by analogy
> with athe.
>
> >
> > The e in athe is obvious coz it's a weakened 'au' I presume.
>
>
> I think so. Compare sune (BG sunno), mine (BG mena), etc.
>
> >
> > Should th in crimean be read as t?
> >
> > And what about ii in thiine. Is that a long i or two syllables?
> > if so I guess it should have been a short e in the first syllable
and
> > a schwa in the second.
> >
>
> I don't know about the 'ii'. Maybe [i:]? Grønvik thought that
It was a greek guy who told Busbecq all these words and he could have
some greek influence on pronunciation (as one website suggests), for
instance hails should have been hel (or el) [(h)e:l] but he said it
as iel coz he didn't use long vowels in his greek dialect. And his
short e was broken into ie. If that's correct words such as thiine,
breen etc. shouldn't have any long vowel.
> initial /t/ and /d/ of Germanic had fallen together in Crimean
Gothic
> as a voiceless stop [t], which Busbeque spells variously 't'
and 'th'
> (similarly /b/ and /p/ > [p], as in 'plut'). But the forms 'goltz'
> and 'statz' made him think that [þ] probably did still exist in
> Crimean Gothic. Busbecq may not have represented it very accurately
> because there was no such sound in his own language.
>
B seems to become voiceless before l (plut) but kept before some
other (bruder, bars etc.) Is it the same with g (e.g. goltz), the
word for cry was written as eriten but shouldn't this be griten, with
g remaining?
I think it's confusing how Busbecq uses the spelling th and tz. If th
is [t] and tz [T] then I wonder why the definite article the and tho
as initla [t] and the pronoun [T]. Further could it be presumed that
[T] was kept initlally before vowel and final (e.g. goltz, statz).
I realize that this is now off topic and should probably be discussed
under crimean gothic instead, sorry for that ;)
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