[gothic-l] Gothic Language Corner 11
roellingua roellingua@gmail.com [gothic-l]
gothic-l at yahoogroups.com
Fri Feb 13 11:38:59 UTC 2015
So, his readings are generally quite well done?
"edmundfairfax at yahoo.ca [gothic-l]" <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com>schreef:
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>Dear Roel,
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>I'm not sure which features you are referring to here: the division into elements or the presence or absence of an accent over <ai>. As to the former, the separation is to break down the word into its part etymologically: thus "af-airz-jan" says as much as prefix af- + root -airz- + infinitive ending of an i-stem. As to the latter, the acute accent over the 'i' of <ai> indicates that the vowel captured by <ai> does NOT descend from Proto-Germanic /ai/. I cite here a passage from Lambdin's >Introduction to the Gothic Language< (2006, p. xiv) concerning this convention:
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>"Since the early years of Indo-European studies it has been a convention in Gothic grammars to indicate the historical distinctions between ai [with acute accent over the 'a'] = PG *ay, the diphthong [ay] as in 'nice', and ai [with acute accent over the 'i'] = PG *i. A third ai, printed with no diacritic, is allegedly found prevocalically in a few words, i.e. saian (to sow), faian (to find fault), waian (to blow), where it corresponds to PG *ae, the [ae] of 'at, sat' but longer. And likewise for au [with acute accent over the 'a'] = PG *aw, the diphthong [aw] in 'house', au [with acute accent over the 'u'] = PG *u and au [no accent] = ?PG *o [long o] or [long u]. We see no need to follow this convention since it implies that each of these digraphs actually had these three different pronunciations in Gothic, for which there is no evidence whatsoever."
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>As to Robert Pfeffer's readings, he, of course, follows modern thinking on <ai> and <au> and pronounces them as monothongs. He goes very quickly, but the only thing I would question is his pronunciation of /h/. He pronounces it as 'ch' in German 'Bach, Fach, Buch' etc. The fact that <h> in the Gothic Bible is subject to assimilation (e.g. jah than > jath than) or outright loss suggests, rather, that the <h> was more likely like the 'h' in ModE 'hand, hold' etc. Moreover, he does not attempt apparently to capture a phonemic difference in vowel length, which I am somewhat inclined to think is possibly right, although most Gothic scholars today usually maintain a system wherein there is a meaningful difference in vowel quantity, thus the 'a' in '-hah-', for example, is thought to be twice as long as the 'a' in 'was.'
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>Edmund
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>---In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, <roellingua at ...> wrote :
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>Hi Edmund,
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>abgeben -- einen Teil abgeben: got. afdailjan*
>abirren: got. afaírzjan 6, af-aírz-jan, sw. V. (1):
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>-- von irdischer Abkunft: got. aírþakunds* 1, aír-þ-a-kun-d-s*,
>„abscheiden“: got. afskaidan 6, af-skai-d-an,
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>What would be the difference in pronunciation and is his assumption correct?
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>I also have a question, are these spoken texts in Gothic a correct pronunciation?
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>https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zkYJYrYFVz8
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>https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=xD9WxPVDr_Y
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>2015-02-13 1:20 GMT+01:00 edmundfairfax at ... [gothic-l] <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com>:
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>Dear Roel,
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>You'll need to give me some examples from Koebler in order to be able to answer.
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>Audamunds
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